Hi all,
I would like to get some help understanding this case.
I have a product that the unit cost method is average, and it's around 0,20€. We had made a buy that is not invoiced yet(image1) and the cost raised.
Then i realised that that purchase as also charges associated. I extracted all the movements to excel, sort by valudation date, and then sum the cost amount+ cost expected, also sum that cost acumulated and divided by the quantity acumulated.
As you can see the GCQ19/01838 is the purchase receipt not invoiced and the GCQ19/01849 are the charges associated to the purchase receipt.
And it inflates the cost.
What i've done in a test DB i invoiced the purchase receipt and the price went right, and i guess it made the adjustements to the sales.
But we have a problem here. We can only invoice when the document from the supplier arrives. But there are sales going on.
How can i fix this? Or at least for the user/director see and understands that the price will get right after it get invoiced.
How can i explain this? Or maybe a trick in code to fix this?
Answers
Otherwise the Vendor Order would not be calculated in the Unit Cost of the Item.
Since you already have the goods, and you sale, that means it is logical that the additional cost (expected cost to be exact) would alternate the cost of the item.
Since you bought it at a higher price than you had in the past, it will inflate the average cost of the item.
If you had bought it at a lower price, it would lower the cost of the item.
And the question rises: Why the unit cost of the item changes the price you sell it?
It shouldn't alter it, unless a customization is active or something changed in 2013+ version that I am not aware of yet.
Arhontis
https://forum.mibuso.com/search