Unapplying method of Invoices

mbs_ashwani

Dear Friends,

Lets have a look on one scenario of Unapplying the Invoice:

[*] I have a Vendor Invoice Numbered INV0001 of Amount 1000.
[*] I made a payment PYMT001 to this Invoice of Amount 500.
[*] I made another Payment PYMT002 to this Invoice of Amount 200.

Now DVLE looks like :
Initial INV0001 -1000
Application PYMT001 500
Application PYMT002 200

Now in this scenario, If I want to Unapply the PYMT001 of 500, Navision ask me to Unapply the latest payment of PYMT002 (because it was applied after PYMT001) before I unapply PYMT001 of 500.

Could anybody please explain me the reason (Functionality wise or Technical as well) why Navision does like that? :-k

vijay_g

you can unapply only in sequence further you apply in same, cause of this when you debug it you will see it's start from last application entry in "Detailed Cust. Led. entry" that have obviously last entry no. in detail.

mbs_ashwani

Thanks for reply,
I can see that it checks for last Application Entry. But I need to know that why Navision restrics to unapply only in the sequence of LIFO. What is the Functional or Technical reason behind it.

vijay_g

that's the issue actually i am struggling with it also. Let's see experts will through what reason behind it.

krvenkata

This seems to be a big issue for which we dont have a logical answer and very difficult to convince the clients. Defenitely there needs to be some solution to resolve it...

kapil4dynamics

krvenkata wrote:

This seems to be a big issue

No it isn't.

krvenkata wrote:

for which we dont have a logical answer and very difficult to convince the clients. Defenitely there needs to be some solution to resolve it...

There is no need of solution as I do not see this as problem. Logical reason for this is multiple application of a payment against an Invoice or Single payment against multiple invoices. If only one to one relationship was available then yes it was an issue else it is not an issue.

mbs_ashwani

Thanks For the Reply,
But if you look at it on practical perpectives that should be possible ..
lets have a look again on a practical scenario

I have received a check payment from my client of 2000 and applied it to Two Invoices:
My Ledger Entries looks like this Viz:


First Invoice Case:
Doc. Type_____Documet No.________Amount_______Rem. Amount______Open
Invoice___________INV0001___________ 3000__________600________________True
Payment__________PYMT001__________-1400



Second Invoice Case:
Doc. Type_____Documet No.________Amount_______Rem. Amount______Open
Invoice___________INV0002___________ 2000__________1400________________True
Payment__________PYMT001__________-600


Payment Entry:
Doc. Type_____Documet No.________Amount_______Rem. Amount______Open
Payment_________PYMT0001___________ 2000__________0________________False



Now, after some time I recieved another check from the same client of 3000 amount, I applied it to 3 Invoices (Previous Two and another new Invoice)
Now the entries would be:

First Invoice Case:
Doc. Type_____Documet No.________Amount_______Rem. Amount______Open
Invoice___________INV0001___________ 3000__________0________________False
Payment__________PYMT002__________-600



Second Invoice Case:
Doc. Type_____Documet No.________Amount_______Rem. Amount______Open
Invoice___________INV0002___________ 2000__________0________________False
Payment__________PYMT002__________-1400


Third Invoice Case:
Doc. Type_____Documet No.________Amount_______Rem. Amount______Open
Invoice___________INV0003___________ 5000__________4000____________True
Payment__________PYMT002__________-1000


Payment Entry:
Doc. Type_____Documet No.________Amount_______Rem. Amount______Open
Payment_________PYMT0002___________ 3000__________0________________False


Now, In this case , I got to know when I received my Bank Statement that by some reason the Check of First payment PYMT001 get bounced and the check of Second Payment PYMT002 hounered by the bank. Therefore, I have to reverse the Payment, for that according to Navision, I have to unapply the PYMT002 (Which is hounered by the bank and needs to do nothing) and then I can unapply the PYMT001 and reverse the Entry and apply again the PYMT002 to all three Invoices. (Which is a tedious task for any user :shock: )

Okay, Some how we can convince the Client if its only one or Couple of Payments right after the needed reversal entry. But what if, by the time i receive my Bank statment I could have applied a lots of payment for an Invoice.
Does it sound Practical to you to unapply all the lates entries and then unapply the needed one and then reapply all the latest ones ?

and if NAVISION has restriction over it. Then I just need an explaination from the experts that what is the Technical or Functional reason behind it.

mbs_ashwani

Dear Experts,

Please give me the clarification for this ..m still struggling.

mbs_ashwani

Dear Experts..

is there anyone who can reply me on this?